Disease Classification
	  		
	
	
OMB No: 0915-0310
Expiration Date: 1/31/2020
	
	
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Expiration date:
CIBMTR Use Only
Sequence Number:
Date Received:
CIBMTR Center Number: ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
CIBMTR Research ID: ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
Event date: ___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___
Date of diagnosis of primary disease for HCT / cellular therapy: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
What was the primary disease for which the HCT / cellular therapy was performed?
 Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML or ANLL) (10) - Go to question 3
 Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) (20) - Go to question 90
 Acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage and other myeloid neoplasms (80) - Go to question 152
 Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) (40) - Go to question 156
		Myelodysplastic
(MDS) / myeloproliferative (MPN) diseases (50)
(Please classify all preleukemias) 
(If recipient has
transformed to AML, indicate AML as the primary disease) - Go
to question 167
 Other leukemia (30) (includes CLL) - Go to question 261
 Hodgkin lymphoma (150) - Go to question 268
 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (100) - Go to question 268
 Multiple myeloma / plasma cell disorder (PCD) (170) - Go to question 268
 Solid tumors (200) - Go to question 300
 Severe aplastic anemia (300) (If the recipient developed MDS or AML, indicate MDS or AML as the primary disease) - Go to question 302
 Inherited abnormalities of erythrocyte differentiation or function (310) - Go to question 304
 Disorders of the immune system (400) - Go to question 307
 Inherited abnormalities of platelets (500) - Go to question 310
 Inherited disorders of metabolism (520) - Go to question 312
 Histiocytic disorders (570) - Go to question 314
 Autoimmune diseases (600) - Go to question 316
 Other disease (900) - Go to question 324
Specify the AML classification:
AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities
 AML with t(9;11) (p22.3;q23.3); MLLT3-KMT2A (5)
 AML with t(6;9) (p23;q34.1); DEK-NUP214 (6)
 AML with inv(3) (q21.3;q26.2) or t(3;3) (q21.3;q26.2); GATA2, MECOM (7)
 AML (megakaryoblastic) with t(1;22) (p13.3;q13.3); RBM15-MKL1 (8)
 AML with t(8;21); (q22; q22.1); RUNX1-RUNX1T1 (281)
 AML with inv(16)(p13.1;1q22) or t(16;16)(p13.1; q22); CBFB-MYH11 (282)
 APL with PML-RARA (283)
AML with BCR-ABL1 (provisional entity) (3)
AML with mutated NPM1 (4)
AML with biallelic mutations of CEBPA (297)
AML with mutated RUNX1 (provisional entity) (298)
 AML with 11q23 (MLL) abnormalities (i.e., t(4;11), t(6;11), t(9;11), t(11;19)) (284)
 AML with myelodysplasia – related changes (285)
 Therapy related AML (t-AML) (9)
AML, not otherwise specified
 AML, not otherwise specified (280)
 AML, minimally differentiated (286)
 AML without maturation (287)
 AML with maturation (288)
 Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (289)
 Acute monoblastic / acute monocytic leukemia (290)
 Acute erythroid leukemia (erythroid / myeloid and pure erythroleukemia) (291)
 Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia (292)
 Acute basophilic leukemia (293)
 Acute panmyelosis with myelofibrosis (294)
 Myeloid sarcoma (295)
Myeloid leukemia associated with Down syndrome (299)
Did AML transform from MDS or MPN?
 Yes – Also complete MDS Disease Classification questions
 No
Is the disease (AML) therapy related?
 Yes
 No
 Unknown
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
 Yes - Go to question 7
 No - Go to question 9
 Unknown - Go to question 9
Specify condition:
 Bloom syndrome - Go to question 9
 Down syndrome - Go to question 9
 Fanconi anemia - Also complete CIBMTR Form 2029 - Go to question 9
 Dyskeratosis congenita - Go to question 9
 Other condition - Go to question 8
Specify other condition: __________________________________________
Labs at diagnosis
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at diagnosis)
 Yes - Go to question 10
 No - Go to question 21
 Unknown - Go to question 21
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
 Yes – Go to question 11
 No - Go to question 15
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 12
 No abnormalities - Go to question 15
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
 -5
 -7
 -17
 -18
 -X
 -Y
 +4
 +8
 +11
 +13
 +14
 +21
 +22
 t(3;3)
 t(6;9)
 t(8;21)
 t(9;11)
 t(9;22)
 t(15;17) and variants
 t(16;16)
 del(3q) / 3q–
 del(5q) / 5q–
 del(7q) / 7q–
 del(9q) / 9q–
 del(11q) / 11q–
 del(16q) / 16q–
 del(17q) / 17q–
 del(20q) / 20q–
 del(21q) / 21q–
 inv(3)
 inv(16)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Other abnormality - Go to question 14
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping?
 Yes – Go to question 16
 No - Go to question 20
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 17
 No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 21
 No abnormalities - Go to question 21
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 -5
 -7
 -17
 -18
 -X
 -Y
 +4
 +8
 +11
 +13
 +14
 +21
 +22
 t(3;3)
 t(6;9)
 t(8;21)
 t(9;11)
 t(9;22)
 t(15;17) and variants
 t(16;16)
 del(3q) / 3q–
 del(5q) / 5q–
 del(7q) / 7q–
 del(9q) / 9q–
 del(11q) / 11q–
 del(16q) / 16q–
 del(17q) / 17q–
 del(20q) / 20q–
 del(21q) / 21q–
 inv(3)
 inv(16)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Other abnormality - Go to question 19
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
 Yes
 No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at diagnosis)
 Yes – Go to question 22
 No – Go to question 34
 Unknown – Go to question 34
Specify molecular markers identified at diagnosis:
CEBPA
 Positive – Go to question 23
 Negative - Go to question 24
 Not done - Go to question 24
Specify CEBPA mutation
 Biallelic (homozygous)
 Monoallelic (heterozygous)
 Unknown
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
 Positive- Go to question 26
 Negative- Go to question 26
 Not done- Go to question 27
FLT3 – ITD allelic ratio
 Known - Go to question 27
 Unknown - Go to question 28
Specify FLT3 - ITD allelic ratio: ___ . ___
IDH1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
IDH2
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
KIT
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
NPM1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
Other molecular marker
 Positive- Go to question 33
 Negative- Go to question 33
 Not done- Go to question 34
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Copy and complete questions 32-33 for multiple molecular markers
Labs between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
 Yes - Go to question 35
 No - Go to question 46
 Unknown - Go to question 46
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
 Yes – Go to question 36
 No - Go to question 40
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 37
 No abnormalities - Go to question 40
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
 -5
 -7
 -17
 -18
 -X
 -Y
 +4
 +8
 +11
 +13
 +14
 +21
 +22
 t(3;3)
 t(6;9)
 t(8;21)
 t(9;11)
 t(9;22)
 t(15;17) and variants
 t(16;16)
 del(3q) / 3q–
 del(5q) / 5q–
 del(7q) / 7q–
 del(9q) / 9q–
 del(11q) / 11q–
 del(16q) / 16q–
 del(17q) / 17q–
 del(20q) / 20q–
 del(21q) / 21q–
 inv(3)
 inv(16)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Other abnormality - Go to question 39
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping?
 Yes – Go to question 41
 No - Go to question 45
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 42
 No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 46
 No abnormalities - Go to question 46
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
 -5
 -7
 -17
 -18
 -X
 -Y
 +4
 +8
 +11
 +13
 +14
 +21
 +22
 t(3;3)
 t(6;9)
 t(8;21)
 t(9;11)
 t(9;22)
 t(15;17) and variants
 t(16;16)
 del(3q) / 3q–
 del(5q) / 5q–
 del(7q) / 7q–
 del(9q) / 9q–
 del(11q) / 11q–
 del(16q) / 16q–
 del(17q) / 17q–
 del(20q) / 20q–
 del(21q) / 21q–
 inv(3)
 inv(16)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Other abnormality - Go to question 44
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
 Yes
 No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
 Yes – Go to question 47
 No – Go to question 59
 Unknown – Go to question 59
Specify molecular markers identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
CEBPA
 Positive – Go to question 48
 Negative - Go to question 49
 Not done - Go to question 49
Specify CEBPA mutation
 Biallelic (homozygous)
 Monoallelic (heterozygous)
 Unknown
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
 Positive - Go to question 51
 Negative - Go to question 53
 Not done - Go to question 53
FLT3 – ITD allelic ratio
 Known - Go to question 52
 Unknown - Go to question 53
Specify FLT3 - ITD allelic ratio: ___ . ___
IDH1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
IDH2
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
KIT
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
NPM1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
Other molecular marker
 Positive- Go to question 58
 Negative- Go to question 58
 Not done- Go to question 59
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Copy and complete questions 57-58 to report multiple other molecular markers
Labs at last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at last evaluation)
 Yes - Go to question 60
 No - Go to question 71
 Unknown - Go to question 71
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
 Yes – Go to question 61
 No - Go to question 65
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 62
 No abnormalities - Go to question 65
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
 -5
 -7
 -17
 -18
 -X
 -Y
 +4
 +8
 +11
 +13
 +14
 +21
 +22
 t(3;3)
 t(6;9)
 t(8;21)
 t(9;11)
 t(9;22)
 t(15;17) and variants
 t(16;16)
 del(3q) / 3q–
 del(5q) / 5q–
 del(7q) / 7q–
 del(9q) / 9q–
 del(11q) / 11q–
 del(16q) / 16q–
 del(17q) / 17q–
 del(20q) / 20q–
 del(21q) / 21q–
 inv(3)
 inv(16)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Other abnormality - Go to question 64
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping?
 Yes – Go to question 66
 No - Go to question 71
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 67
 No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 71
 No abnormalities - Go to question 71
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
One (1)
Two (2)
Three (3)
Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities (check all that apply)
 -5
 -7
 -17
 -18
 -X
 -Y
 +4
 +8
 +11
 +13
 +14
 +21
 +22
 t(3;3)
 t(6;9)
 t(8;21)
 t(9;11)
 t(9;22)
 t(15;17) and variants
 t(16;16)
 del(3q) / 3q–
 del(5q) / 5q–
 del(7q) / 7q–
 del(9q) / 9q–
 del(11q) / 11q–
 del(16q) / 16q–
 del(17q) / 17q–
 del(20q) / 20q–
 del(21q) / 21q–
 inv(3)
 inv(16)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Other abnormality - Go to question 69
Specify other abnormality: _____________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
 Yes
 No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at last evaluation)
 Yes – Go to question 72
 No – Go to question 84
 Unknown – Go to question 84
Specify molecular markers identified at last evaluation:
CEBPA
 Positive – Go to question 73
 Negative - Go to question 74
 Not done - Go to question 74
Specify CEBPA mutation
 Biallelic (homozygous)
 Monoallelic (heterozygous)
 Unknown
FLT3 – D835 point mutation
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
FLT3 – ITD mutation
 Positive - Go to question 76
 Negative - Go to question 78
 Not done - Go to question 78
FLT3 – ITD allelic ratio
 Known - Go to question 77
 Unknown - Go to question 78
Specify FLT3 - ITD allelic ratio: ___ . ___
IDH1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
IDH2
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
KIT
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
NPM1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
Other molecular marker
 Positive- Go to question 83
 Negative- Go to question 83
 Not done- Go to question 84
Specify other molecular marker: _________________________________
Copy and complete questions 82-83 to report multiple other molecular markers
CNS Leukemia
Did the recipient have central nervous system leukemia at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen / infusion?
 Yes
 No
 Unknown
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematological test results)?
 Primary induction failure – Go to question 89
 1st complete remission (no previous bone marrow or extramedullary relapse) (include CRi)– Go to question 86
 2nd complete remission – Go to question 86
 ≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 86
 1st relapse – Go to question 88
 2nd relapse – Go to question 88
 ≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 88
 No treatment – Go to question 89
How many cycles of induction therapy were required to achieve 1st complete remission? (includes CRi)
1
2
≥ 3
Was the recipient in remission by flow cytometry?
Yes – Go to question 89
No – Go to question 89
Unknown – Go to question 89
Not applicable – Go to question 89
Date of most recent relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify ALL classification:
B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma, NOS (B-cell ALL, NOS) (191)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 (192)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(v;11q23.3); KMT2A rearranged (193)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(1;19)(q23;p13.3); TCF3-PBX1 (194)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(12;21) (p13.2;q22.1); ETV6-RUNX1 (195)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with t(5;14) (q31.1;q32.3); IL3-IGH (81)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with Hyperdiploidy (51-65 chromosomes) (82)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma with Hypodiploidy (<45 chromosomes) (83)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma, BCR-ABL1-like (provisional entity) (94)
 B-lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma, with iAMP21 (provisional entity) (95)
T-cell lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma
 Early T-cell precursor lymphoblastic leukemia (provisional entity) (96)
Natural killer (NK)- cell lymphoblastic leukemia / lymphoma (provisional entity) (97)
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
 Yes - Go to question 92
 No - Go to question 94
 Unknown - Go to question 94
Specify condition:
Aplastic anemia - Go to question 94 Also complete CIBMTR Form 2028 — APL
Bloom syndrome - Go to question 94
Down syndrome - Go to question 94
Fanconi anemia - Go to question 924 Also complete CIBMTR Form 2029 — FAN
Other condition - Go to question 93
Specify other condition:
Were tyrosine kinase inhibitors given for therapy at any time prior to start of the preparative regimen / infusion? (e.g. imatinib mesylate, dasatinib, etc.)
 Yes
 No
Laboratory studies at diagnosis:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at diagnosis)
 Yes - Go to question 96
 No - Go to question 106
 Unknown - Go to question 106
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH? (at diagnosis)
Yes - Go to question 97
 No - Go to question 101
Results of tests: (at diagnosis)
 Abnormalities identified - Go to question 98
 No abnormalities - Go to question 101
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 –7
 +4
 +8
 +17
 +21
 t(1;19)
 t(2;8)
 t(4;11)
 t(5;14)
 t(8;14)
 t(8;22)
 t(9;22)
 t(10;14)
 t(11;14)
 t(12;21)
 del(6q) / 6q–
 del(9p) / 9p–
 del(12p) / 12p–
 add(14q)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 9p any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Hyperdiploid (> 50)
 Hypodiploid (< 45)
 iAMP21
 Other abnormality – Go to question 100
Specify other abnormality:
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping? (at diagnosis)
Yes - Go to question 102
No - Go to question 107
Results of tests: (at diagnosis)
 Abnormalities identified - Go to question 103
 No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 107
 No abnormalities - Go to question 107
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 –7
 +4
 +8
 +17
 +21
 t(1;19)
 t(2;8)
 t(4;11)
 t(5;14)
 t(8;14)
 t(8;22)
 t(9;22)
 t(10;14)
 t(11;14)
 t(12;21)
 del(6q) / 6q–
 del(9p) / 9p–
 del(12p) / 12p–
 add(14q)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 9p any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Hyperdiploid (> 50)
 Hypodiploid (< 45)
 iAMP21
 Other abnormality – Go to question 105
Specify other abnormality: _________________________
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
 Yes
 No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at diagnosis)
 Yes – Go to question 108
 No – Go to question 113
 Unknown – Go to question 113
Specify molecular markers identified at diagnosis:
BCR / ABL
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
Other molecular marker
 Positive – Go to question 111
 Negative – Go to question 111
 Not done – Go to question 112
Specify other molecular marker:
Copy and complete questions 110-111 for additional molecular markers
Laboratory studies between diagnosis and last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
 Yes - Go to question 113
 No - Go to question 124
 Unknown - Go to question 124
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH? (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 114
 No - Go to question 118
Results of tests: (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
 Abnormalities identified - Go to question 115
 No abnormalities - Go to question 118
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 –7
 +4
 +8
 +17
 +21
 t(1;19)
 t(2;8)
 t(4;11)
 t(5;14)
 t(8;14)
 t(8;22)
 t(9;22)
 t(10;14)
 t(11;14)
 t(12;21)
 del(6q) / 6q–
 del(9p) / 9p–
 del(12p) / 12p–
 add(14q)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 9p any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Hyperdiploid (> 50)
 Hypodiploid (< 45)
 iAMP21
 Other abnormality – Go to question 117
Specify other abnormality:
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping? (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 119
No - Go to question 124
Results of tests: (between diagnosis and the last evaluation)
 Abnormalities identified - Go to question 120
 No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 124
 No abnormalities - Go to question 124
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 –7
 +4
 +8
 +17
 +21
 t(1;19)
 t(2;8)
 t(4;11)
 t(5;14)
 t(8;14)
 t(8;22)
 t(9;22)
 t(10;14)
 t(11;14)
 t(12;21)
 del(6q) / 6q–
 del(9p) / 9p–
 del(12p) / 12p–
 add(14q)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 9p any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Hyperdiploid (> 50)
 Hypodiploid (< 45)
 iAMP21
 Other abnormality – Go to question 122
Specify other abnormality:
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
 Yes
 No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (between diagnosis and last evaluation)
 Yes – Go to question 125
 No – Go to question 129
 Unknown – Go to question 129
Specify molecular markers identified between diagnosis and last evaluation:
BCR / ABL
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
Other molecular marker
 Positive – Go to question 128
 Negative – Go to question 128
 Not done – Go to question 129
Specify other molecular marker:
Copy and complete questions 127-128 for additional molecular markers
Laboratory studies at last evaluation:
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)? (at last evaluation)
 Yes - Go to question 130
 No - Go to question 141
 Unknown - Go to question 141
Were cytogenetics tested via FISH?
Yes - Go to question 131
 No - Go to question 135
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified - Go to question 132
 No abnormalities - Go to question 135
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 –7
 +4
 +8
 +17
 +21
 t(1;19)
 t(2;8)
 t(4;11)
 t(5;14)
 t(8;14)
 t(8;22)
 t(9;22)
 t(10;14)
 t(11;14)
 t(12;21)
 del(6q) / 6q–
 del(9p) / 9p–
 del(12p) / 12p–
 add(14q)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 9p any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Hyperdiploid (> 50)
 Hypodiploid (< 45)
 iAMP21
 Other abnormality – Go to question 134
Specify other abnormality:
Were cytogenetics tested via karyotyping? (at last evaluation)
Yes - Go to question 136
No - Go to question 141
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified - Go to question 137
 No evaluable metaphases - Go to question 141
 No abnormalities - Go to question 141
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Specify abnormalities: (check all that apply)
 –7
 +4
 +8
 +17
 +21
 t(1;19)
 t(2;8)
 t(4;11)
 t(5;14)
 t(8;14)
 t(8;22)
 t(9;22)
 t(10;14)
 t(11;14)
 t(12;21)
 del(6q) / 6q–
 del(9p) / 9p–
 del(12p) / 12p–
 add(14q)
 (11q23) any abnormality
 9p any abnormality
 12p any abnormality
 Hyperdiploid (> 50)
 Hypodiploid (< 45)
 iAMP21
 Other abnormality – Go to question 139
Specify other abnormality:
Was documentation submitted to the CIBMTR? (e.g. cytogenetic or FISH report)
 Yes
 No
Were tests for molecular markers performed (e.g. PCR, NGS)? (at last evaluation)
 Yes – Go to question 142
 No – Go to question 146
 Unknown – Go to question 146
Specify molecular markers identified at last evaluation:
BCR / ABL
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
TEL-AML / AML1
 Positive
 Negative
 Not done
Other molecular marker
 Positive – Go to question 145
 Negative – Go to question 145
 Not done – Go to question 146
Specify other molecular marker:
Copy and complete questions 144-145 for additional molecular markers
CNS Leukemia
Did the recipient have central nervous system leukemia at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen / infusion?
 Yes
 No
 Unknown
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematological test results)?
Primary induction failure – Go to question 151
1st complete remission (no previous marrow or extramedullary relapse)(include CRi) – Go to question 148
2nd complete remission – Go to question 148
≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 148
1st relapse – Go to question 150
2nd relapse – Go to question 150
≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 150
No treatment – Go to question 151
How many cycles of induction therapy were required to achieve 1st complete remission (include CRi)?
1
2
≥ 3
Was the recipient in remission by flow cytometry?
Yes – Go to question 151
No – Go to question 151
Unknown – Go to question 151
Not applicable – Go to question 151
Date of most recent relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify acute leukemias of ambiguous lineage and other myeloid neoplasm classification:
Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm (296)– Go to question 154
 Acute undifferentiated leukemia (31) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL) with t(9;22)(q34.1;q11.2); BCR-ABL1 (84) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia with t(v; 11q23.3); KMT2A rearranged (85) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, B/myeloid, NOS (86) – Go to question 154
Mixed phenotype acute leukemia, T/myeloid, NOS (87) – Go to question 154
 Other acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage or myeloid neoplasm (88) - Go to question 153
Specify other acute leukemia of ambiguous lineage or myeloid neoplasm:
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status (based on hematological test results)?
Primary induction failure
1st complete remission (no previous marrow or extramedullary relapse)
2nd complete remission
≥ 3rd complete remission
1st relapse
2nd relapse
≥3rd relapse
No treatment
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Was therapy given prior to this HCT?
 Yes - Go to questions 157
 No - Go to question 163
Combination chemotherapy
 Yes
 No
Hydroxyurea (Droxia, Hydrea)
 Yes
 No
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor (e.g.imatinib mesylate, dasatinib, nilotinib)
 Yes
 No
Interferon-α (Intron, Roferon) (includes PEG)
 Yes
 No
Other therapy
 Yes - Go to question 162
 No - Go to question 163
Specify other therapy: ______________________________________
What was the disease status?
 Complete hematologic response (CHR) - Go to question 164
 Chronic phase – Go to question 164
 Accelerated phase - Go to question 165
 Blast phase - Go to question 165
Specify level of response
 No cytogenetic response (No CyR)
 Minimal cytogenetic response
 Minor cytogenetic response
 Partial cytogenetic response (PCyR)
 Complete cytogenetic response (CCyR)
 Major molecular remission (MMR)
 Complete molecular remission (CMR)
Number
 1st
 2nd
 3rd or higher
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
What was the MDS / MPN subtype at diagnosis? – If transformed to AML, indicate AML as primary disease; also complete AML Disease Classification questions
 Refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA)) (51)
 Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS) (55)
 Refractory anemia with excess blasts-1 (RAEB-1) (61)
 Refractory anemia with excess blasts-2 (RAEB-2) (62)
 Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) (64)
 Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome (Refractory cytopenia of childhood (RCC)) (68)
 Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del(5q) (5q– syndrome) (66)
 Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), unclassifiable (50)
 Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (165)
 Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS (166)
 Essential thrombocythemia (includes primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, hemorrhagic thrombocythemia) (58)
 Polycythemia vera (PCV) (57)
 Primary myelofibrosis (includes chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (AMM), myelofibrosis/sclerosis with myeloid metaplasia (MMM), idiopathic myelofibrosis) (167)
 Mastocytosis
 Myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), unclassifiable (60)
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRA rearrangement
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRB rearrangement
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with FGFR1 rearrangement
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PCM1-JAK2-
 Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL) (54)
 Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML/JCML) (no evidence of Ph1 or BCR/ABL) (36) – Go to question 212
 Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia (aCML), BCR-ABL1- – Go to question 265
 MDS / MPN with ring sideroblasts and thrombocytosis (MDS / MPN–RS–T)
 Myelodysplastic / myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable (69)
Was the disease (MDS/MPN) therapy related?
 Yes
 No
 Unknown
Did the recipient have a predisposing condition?
 Yes – Go to question 168
 No – Go to question 170
 Unknown – Go to question 170
Specify condition:
 Aplastic anemia – Go to question 172
 Bloom syndrome – Go to question 172
 Down syndrome – Go to question 172
 Fanconi anemia – – Go to question 172
 Other condition – Go to question 171
Specify other condition:
Laboratory studies at diagnosis of MDS:
WBC
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___  x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
 x 106/L
Hemoglobin
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___  g/dL
 g/L
 mmol/L
Was RBC transfused ≤ 30 days before date of test?
 Yes
 No
Platelets
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___  x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
 x 106/L
Were platelets transfused ≤ 7 days before date of test?
 Yes
 No
Neutrophils
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___%
Blasts in bone marrow
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ %
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)?
 Yes – Go to question 185
 No – Go to question 212
 Unknown – Go to question 212
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 186
 No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 212
 No abnormalities – Go to question 212
Specify abnormalities identified at diagnosis:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Monosomy
–5
 Yes
 No
–7
 Yes
 No
–13
 Yes
 No
–20
 Yes
 No
–Y
 Yes
 No
Trisomy
+8
 Yes
 No
+19
 Yes
 No
Translocation
t(1;3)
 Yes
 No
t(2;11)
 Yes
 No
t(3;3)
 Yes
 No
t(3;21)
 Yes
 No
t(6;9)
 Yes
 No
t(11;16)
 Yes
 No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q-
 Yes
 No
del(5q) / 5q-
 Yes –
 No
del(7q) / 7q-
 Yes
 No
del(9q) / 9q-
 Yes
 No
del(11q) / 11q-
 Yes
 No
del(12p) / 12p-
 Yes
 No
del(13q) / 13q-
 Yes
 No
del(20q) / 20q-
 Yes
 No
Inversion
inv(3)
 Yes
 No
Other
i17q
 Yes
 No
Other abnormality
 Yes – Go to question 211
 No – Go to question 212
Specify other abnormality:
Did the recipient progress or transform to a different MDS / MPN subtype between diagnosis and the start of the preparative regimen?
 Yes – Go to question 213
 No – Go to question 216
Specify the MDS / MPN subtype after transformation:
 Refractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA)) (51) – Go to question 214
 Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS) (55) – Go to question 214
 Refractory anemia with excess blasts-1 (RAEB-1) (61) – Go to question 214
 Refractory anemia with excess blasts-2 (RAEB-2) (62) – Go to question 214
 Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) (64) – Go to question 214
 Childhood myelodysplastic syndrome (Refractory cytopenia of childhood (RCC)) (68) – Go to question 214
 Myelodysplastic syndrome with isolated del(5q) (5q– syndrome) (66) – Go to question 214
 Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), unclassifiable (50) – Go to question 214
 Chronic neutrophilic leukemia (165) – Go to question 214
 Chronic eosinophilic leukemia, NOS (166) – Go to question 214
 Essential thrombocythemia (includes primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, hemorrhagic thrombocythemia) (58) – Go to question 214
 Polycythemia vera (PCV) (57) – Go to question 214
 Primary myelofibrosis (includes chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis (CIMF), angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (AMM), myelofibrosis/sclerosis with myeloid metaplasia (MMM), idiopathic myelofibrosis) (167) – Go to question 214
 Mastocytosis
 Myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), unclassifiable (60) – Go to question 214
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRA rearrangement
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PDGFRB rearrangement
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with FGFR1 rearrangement
 Myeloid/lymphoid neoplasms with PCM1-JAK2-
 Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMMoL) (54) – Go to question 214
 Atypical chronic myeloid leukemia (aCML), BCR-ABL1- – Go to question 265
 MDS / MPN with ring sideroblasts and thrombocytosis (MDS / MPN–RS–T)
 Myelodysplastic / myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable (69) – Go to question 214
 Transformed to AML (70) – Go to question 215
Specify the date of the most recent transformation:___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 216
Date of MDS diagnosis: ___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___ – Go to signature line
Laboratory studies at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
WBC
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___  x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
 x 106/L
Hemoglobin
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___  g/dL
 g/L
 mmol/L
Was RBC transfused ≤ 30 days before date of test?
 Yes
 No
Platelets
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___  x 109/L (x 103/mm3)
 x 106/L
Were platelets transfused ≤ 7 days before date of test?
 Yes
 No
Neutrophils
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___%
Blasts in bone marrow
 Known
 Unknown
___ ___ ___ %
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)?
 Yes – Go to question 229
 No – Go to question 256
 Unknown – Go to question 256
Results of tests:
 Abnormalities identified – Go to question 230
 No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 256
 No abnormalities – Go to question 256
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Specify number of distinct cytogenetic abnormalities:
 One (1)
 Two (2)
 Three (3)
 Four or more (4 or more)
Monosomy
–5
 Yes
 No
–7
 Yes
 No
–13
 Yes
 No
–20
 Yes
 No
–Y
 Yes
 No
Trisomy
+8
 Yes
 No
+19
 Yes
 No
Translocation
t(1;3)
 Yes
 No
t(2;11)
 Yes
 No
t(3;3)
 Yes
 No
t(3;21)
 Yes
 No
t(6;9)
 Yes
 No
t(11;16)
 Yes
 No
Deletion
del(3q) / 3q-
 Yes
 No
del(5q) / 5q-
 Yes
 No
del(7q) / 7q-
 Yes
 No
del(9q) / 9q-
 Yes
 No
del(11q) / 11q-
 Yes
 No
del(12p) / 12p-
 Yes
 No
del(13q) / 13q-
 Yes
 No
del(20q) / 20q-
 Yes
 No
Inversion
inv(3)
 Yes
 No
Other
i17q
 Yes
 No
Other abnormality
 Yes – Go to question 255
 No – Go to question 256
Specify other abnormality:
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status?
 Complete remission (CR) – requires all of the following, maintained for ≥ 4 weeks: * bone marrow evaluation: < 5% myeloblasts with normal maturation of all cell lines * peripheral blood evaluation: hemoglobin ≥ 11 g/dL untransfused and without erythropoietin support; ANC ≥ 1000/mm3 without myeloid growth factor support; platelets ≥ 100 x 109/L without thrombopoietic support; 0% blasts - Go to question 260
 Hematologic improvement (HI) – requires one measurement of the following, maintained for ≥ 8 weeks without ongoing cytotoxic therapy; specify which cell line was measured to determine HI response: * HI-E – hemoglobin increase of ≥ 1.5 g/dL untransfused; for RBC transfusions performed for Hgb ≤ 9.0, reduction in RBC units transfused in 8 weeks by ≥ 4 units compared to the pre-treatment transfusion number in 8 weeks * HI-P – for pre-treatment platelet count of > 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 30 x 109/L; for pre-treatment platelet count of < 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 20 x 109/L and ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level * HI-N – neutrophil count increase of ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level and an absolute increase of ≥ 500/mm3 - Go to question 257
 No response (NR) / stable disease (SD) – does not meet the criteria for at least HI, but no evidence of disease progression - Go to question 260
 Progression from hematologic improvement (Prog from HI) – requires at least one of the following, in the absence of another explanation (e.g., infection, bleeding, ongoing chemotherapy, etc.): * ≥ 50% reduction from maximum response levels in granulocytes or platelets * reduction in hemoglobin by ≥ 1.5 g/dL *transfusion dependence - Go to question 258
 Relapse from complete remission (Rel from CR) – requires at least one of the following: * return to pre-treatment bone marrow blast percentage * decrease of ≥ 50% from maximum response levels in granulocytes or platelets * transfusion dependence, or hemoglobin level ≥ 1.5 g/dL lower than prior to therapy - Go to question 259
 Not assessed - Go to signature line
Specify the cell line examined to determine HI status:
 HI-E – hemoglobin increase of ≥ 1.5 g/dL untransfused; for RBC transfusions performed for Hgb ≤ 9.0, reduction in RBC units transfused in 8 weeks by ≥ 4 units compared to the pre-treatment transfusion number in 8 weeks - Go to question 260
 HI-P – for pre-treatment platelet count of > 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 30 x 109/L; for pre-treatment platelet count of < 20 x 109/L, platelet absolute increase of ≥ 20 x 109/L and ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level – Go to question 260
 HI-N – neutrophil count increase of ≥ 100% from pre-treatment level and an absolute increase of ≥ 500/mm3 - Go to question 260
Date of progression: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 260
YYYY MM DD
Date of relapse: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to question 260
YYYY MM DD
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___- Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify the other leukemia classification:
 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), NOS (34) - Go to question 263
 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), B-cell / small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) (71) - Go to question 263
 Hairy cell leukemia (35) - Go to question 266
 Hairy cell leukemia variant (75) - Go to question 266
 Monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis (76) – Go to signature line
 Prolymphocytic leukemia (PLL), NOS (37) - Go to question 263
 PLL, B-cell (73) - Go to question 263
 PLL, T-cell (74) - Go to question 263
 Other leukemia, NOS (30) - Go to question 265
 Other leukemia (39) - Go to question 262
Specify other leukemia: – Go to question 265
Was any 17p abnormality detected?
 Yes – If disease classification is CLL, go to question 264. If PLL, go to question 266
 No
Did a histologic transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (Richter syndrome) occur at any time after CLL diagnosis?
 Yes – Go to question 271– Also complete NHL Disease Classification questions
 No – Go to question 266
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status? (Atypical CML)
 Primary induction failure – Go to question 267
 1st complete remission (no previous bone marrow or extramedullary relapse) – Go to question 267
 2nd complete remission – Go to question 267
 ≥ 3rd complete remission – Go to question 267
 1st relapse – Go to question 267
 2nd relapse – Go to question 267
 ≥ 3rd relapse – Go to question 267
 No treatment – Go to signature line
What was the disease status? (CLL, PLL, Hairy cell leukemia)
 Complete remission (CR) – Go to question 267
 Partial remission (PR) – Go to question 267
 Stable disease (SD) – Go to question 267
 Progressive disease (Prog) – Go to question 267
 Untreated - Go to question 267
 Not assessed - Go to signature line
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify the lymphoma histology: (at transplant)
Hodgkin Lymphoma Codes
Hodgkin lymphoma, not otherwise specified (150)
Lymphocyte depleted (154)
Lymphocyte-rich (151)
Mixed cellularity (153)
Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (155)
Nodular sclerosis (152)
Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma Codes
B-cell Neoplasms
ALK+ large B-cell lymphoma (1833)
B-cell lymphoma, unclassifiable, with features intermediate between DLBCL and classical Hodgkin lymphoma (149)
Burkitt lymphoma (111)
Burkitt-like lymphoma with 11q aberration (1834)
Diffuse large B-cell Lymphoma (cell of origin unknown) (107)
Diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma- Germinal center B-cell type (1820) – Go to question 270
Diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma- Activated B-cell type (non-GCB) (1821) – Go to question 270
DLBCL associated with chronic inflammation (1825)
Duodenal-type follicular lymphoma (1815)
EBV+ DLBCL, NOS (1823)
EBV+ mucocutaneous ulcer (1824)
Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosal associated lymphoid tissue type (MALT) (122)
Follicular, predominantly small cleaved cell (Grade I follicle center lymphoma) (102)
Follicular, mixed, small cleaved and large cell (Grade II follicle center lymphoma) (103)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIA follicle center lymphoma) (162)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIB follicle center lymphoma) (163)
Follicular, predominantly large cell (Grade IIIA vs IIIB not specified) (1814)
Follicular (grade unknown) (164)
HHV8+ DLBCL, NOS (1826)
High-grade B-cell lymphoma, with MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 rearrangements (1831)
High-grade B-cell lymphoma, NOS (1830)
Intravascular large B-cell lymphoma (136)
Large B-cell lymphoma with IRF4 rearrangement (1832)
Lymphomatoid granulomatosis (1835)
Mantle cell lymphoma (115)
Nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (± monocytoid B-cells) (123)
Pediatric nodal marginal zone lymphoma (1813)
Pediatric-type follicular lymphoma (1816)
Plasmablastic lymphoma (1836)
Primary cutaneous follicle center lymphoma (1817)
Primary cutaneous DLBCL, leg type (1822)
Primary diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma of the CNS (118)
Primary effusion lymphoma (138)
Primary mediastinal (thymic) large B-cell lymphoma (125)
Splenic marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (124)
Splenic B-cell lymphoma/leukemia, unclassifiable (1811)
Splenic diffuse red pulp small B-cell lymphoma (1812)
T-cell / histiocytic rich large B-cell lymphoma (120)
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia / Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (173)
Other B-cell lymphoma (129) – Go to question 269
T-cell and NK-cell Neoplasms
Adult T-cell lymphoma / leukemia (HTLV1 associated) (134)
Aggressive NK-cell leukemia (27)
Angioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphoma (131)
Anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALCL), ALK positive (143)
Anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (ALCL), ALK negative (144)
Breast implant–associated anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (1861)
Chronic lymphoproliferative disorder of NK cells (1856)
Extranodal NK / T-cell lymphoma, nasal type (137)
Enteropathy-type T-cell lymphoma (133)
Follicular T-cell lymphoma (1859)
Hepatosplenic T-cell lymphoma (145)
Indolent T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder of the GI tract (1858)
Monomorphic epitheliotropic intestinal T-cell lymphoma (1857)
Mycosis fungoides (141)
Nodal peripheral T-cell lymphoma with TFH phenotype (1860)
Peripheral T-cell lymphoma (PTCL), NOS (130)
Primary cutaneous γδ T-cell lymphoma (1851)
Primary cutaneous CD8+ aggressive epidermotropic cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma (1852)
Primary cutaneous acral CD8+ T-cell lymphoma (1853)
Primary cutaneous CD4+ small/medium T-cell lymphoproliferative disorder (1854)
Primary cutaneous CD30+ T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders [Primary cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphoma (C-ALCL), lymphoid papulosis] (147)
Sezary syndrome (142)
Subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma (146)
Systemic EBV+ T-cell lymphoma of childhood (1855)
T-cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia (126)
Other T-cell / NK-cell lymphoma (139) Go to question 269
Posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD)
Classical Hodgkin lymphoma PTLD (1876)
Florid follicular hyperplasia PTLD (1873)
Infectious mononucleosis PTLD (1872)
Monomorphic PTLD (B- and T-/NK-cell types) (1875)
Plasmacytic hyperplasia PTLD (1871)
Polymorphic PTLD (1874)
Specify other lymphoma histology: ______________________ – Go to question 271
Assignment of DLBCL (germinal center B-cell type vs. Activated B-cell type) subtype was based on:
Immunohistochemistry (e.g. Han’s algorithm)
Gene expression profile
Unknown method
Is the lymphoma histology reported at transplant a transformation from CLL?
 Yes – Go to question 272
 No - Go to question 273
Was any 17p abnormality detected?
 Yes– Go to question 277
 No– Go to question 277
Is the lymphoma histology reported at transplant a transformation from a different lymphoma histology? (Not CLL)
 Yes – Go to question 274
 No – Go to question 277
Specify the original lymphoma histology: (prior to transformation) same option list as Q268
Specify other lymphoma histology:________________
Date of original lymphoma diagnosis:___ ___ ___ ___ - ___ ___ - ___ ___ (report the date of diagnosis of original lymphoma subtype)
Was a PET (or PET/CT) scan performed? (at last evaluation prior to the start of the preparative regimen / infusion)
Yes – Go to question 278
No – Go to question 283
Was the PET (or PET/CT) scan positive for lymphoma involvement at any disease site?
Yes
No
Date of PET scan
Known– Go to question 280
Unknown – Go to question 281
Date of PET (or PET/CT) scan: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
Deauville (five-point) score of the PET (or PET/CT) scan
Known – Go to question 282
Unknown – Go to question 283
Scale
 1- no uptake or no residual uptake
 2- slight uptake, but below blood pool (mediastinum)
 3- uptake above mediastinal, but below or equal to uptake in the liver
 4- uptake slightly to moderately higher than liver
 5- markedly increased uptake or any new lesion
Status at transplantation / infusion:
What was the disease status?
Disease untreated– Go to question 285
PIF res - Primary induction failure – resistant: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with stable or progressive disease on treatment. – Go to question 284
 PIF sen / PR1 - Primary induction failure – sensitive: NEVER in COMPLETE remission but with partial remission on treatment. – Go to question 284
PIF unk - Primary induction failure – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
CR1 - 1st complete remission: no bone marrow or extramedullary relapse prior to transplant– Go to question 284
CR2 - 2nd complete remission– Go to question 284
CR3+ - 3rd or subsequent complete remission– Go to question 284
REL1 unt - 1st relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse– Go to question 284
REL1 res - 1st relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment– Go to question 284
REL1 sen - 1st relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission was achieved, classify as CR2) – Go to question 284
REL1 unk - 1st relapse – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
REL2 unt - 2nd relapse – untreated: includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse– Go to question 284
REL2 res - 2nd relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment– Go to question 284
REL2 sen - 2nd relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)– Go to question 284
REL2 unk - 2nd relapse – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
REL3+ unt - 3rd or subsequent relapse – untreated; includes either bone marrow or extramedullary relapse– Go to question 284
REL3+ res - 3rd or subsequent relapse – resistant: stable or progressive disease with treatment– Go to question 284
REL3+ sen - 3rd or subsequent relapse – sensitive: partial remission (if complete remission achieved, classify as CR3+)– Go to question 284
REL3+ unk - 3rd relapse or greater – sensitivity unknown– Go to question 284
Total number of lines of therapy received: (at any time between diagnosis and HCT / infusion)
1 line
2 lines
3+ lines
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
Specify the multiple myeloma/plasma cell disorder (PCD) classification:
 Multiple myeloma-lgG (181) - Go to questions 289
 Multiple myeloma-lgA (182) - Go to questions 289
 Multiple myeloma-lgD (183) - Go to questions 289
 Multiple myeloma-lgE (184) - Go to questions 289
 Multiple myeloma-lgM (not Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia) (185) - Go to questions 289
 Multiple myeloma-light chain only (186) - Go to questions 289
 Multiple myeloma-non-secretory (187) - Go to questions 290
 Plasma cell leukemia (172) - Go to question 295
 Solitary plasmacytoma (no evidence of myeloma) (175) - Go to question 295
 Amyloidosis (174) - Go to question 295
 Osteosclerotic myeloma / POEMS syndrome (176) - Go to questions 295
 Light chain deposition disease (177) - Go to questions 295
 Other plasma cell disorder (179) - Go to question 288
Specify other plasma cell disorder: _____________________________ - Go to question 295
Light chain
 kappa
 lambda
What was the Durie-Salmon staging (at diagnosis)?
 Stage I (All of the following: Hgb > 10g/dL; serum calcium normal or <10.5 mg/dL; bone x-ray normal bone structure (scale 0), or solitary bone plasmacytoma only; low M-component production rates IgG < 5g/dL, IgA < 3g/dL; urine light chain M-component on electrophoresis <4g/24h) – Go to questions 291
 Stage II (Fitting neither Stage I or Stage III) – Go to questions 291
 Stage III (One of more of the following: Hgb < 8.5 g/dL; serum calcium > 12 mg/dL; advanced lytic bone lesions (scale 3); high M-component production rates IgG >7g/dL, IgA > 5g/dL; Bence Jones protein >12g/24h) – Go to questions 291
 Unknown – Go to questions 292
What was the Durie-Salmon sub classification (at diagnosis)?
 A - relatively normal renal function (serum creatinine < 2.0 mg/dL)
 B - abnormal renal function (serum creatinine ≥ 2.0 mg/dL)
I.S.S.:
Serum β2-microglobulin: ___ ___ ___ ● ___ ___ ___  μg/dL
 mg/L
 nmol/L
Serum albumin: ___ ___ ● ___  g/dL
 g/L
Stage
 1 (β2-mic < 3.5, S. albumin ≥ 3.5)
 2 (not fitting stage 1 or 3)
 3 (β2-mic ≥ 5.5; S. albumin —)
Were cytogenetics tested (karyotyping or FISH)?
Yes – Go to questions 296
No – Go to question 317
Unknown – Go to question 317
Results of tests:
Abnormalities identified – Go to question 297
No evaluable metaphases – Go to question 317
No abnormalities – Go to question 317
Specify cytogenetic abnormalities identified at any time prior to the start of the preparative regimen:
Trisomy
+3
Yes
No
+5
Yes
No
+7
Yes
No
+9
Yes
No
+11
Yes
No
+15
Yes
No
+19
Yes
No
Translocation
t(4;14)
Yes
No
t(6;14)
Yes
No
t(11;14)
Yes
No
t(14;16)
Yes
No
t(14;20)
Yes
No
Deletion
del (13)/13q-
Yes
No
del (17)/17p-
Yes
No
Other
Hyperdiploid (>50)
Yes
No
Hypodiploid (<46)
Yes
No
Any abnormality at 1q
Yes
No
Any abnormality at 1p
Yes
No
Other abnormality
Yes
No
Specify other abnormality:______________________________________________
Status at transplantation:
What was the disease status?
 Stringent complete remission (sCR). - CR as defined, plus: normal free light chain ratio, and absence of clonal cells in the bone marrow by immunohistochemistry or immunofluorescence (confirmation with repeat bone marrow biopsy not needed). (Presence and/or absence of clonal cells is based upon the κ/λ ratio. An abnormal κ/λ ratio by immunohistochemistry and/or immunofluorescence requires a minimum of 100 plasma cells for analysis. An abnormal ratio reflecting the presence of an abnormal clone is κ/λ of > 4:1 or < 1:2.) sCR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy sCR requirements. - Go to question 318
 Complete remission (CR) — negative immunofixation on serum and urine samples, and disappearance of any soft tissue plasmacytomas, and < 5% plasma cells in the bone marrow (confirmation with repeat bone marrow biopsy not needed). CR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy CR requirements. - Go to question 318
 Near complete remission (nCR) — serum and urine M-protein detectable by immunoelectrophoresis (IFE), but not on electrophoresis (negative SPEP & UPEP); < 5% plasma cells in bone marrow. nCR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the initiation of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy nCR requirements. - Go to question 318
 Very good partial remission (VGPR ) — serum and urine M-protein detectable by immunofixation but not on electrophoresis, or ≥ 90% reduction in serum M-protein and urine M-protein level < 100 mg/24 hours. VGPR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy VGPR requirements. - Go to question 318
 Partial remission (PR) — ≥ 50% reduction in serum M-protein, and reduction in 24-hour urinary M-protein by ≥ 90% or to < 200 mg/24 hours. If the serum and urine M-protein are unmeasurable (i.e., do not meet any of the following criteria: • serum M-protein ≥ 1 g/dL. Urine M-protein ≥ 200 mg/24 hours • serum free light chain assay shows involved level ≥ 10 mg/dL, provided serum free light chain ratio is abnormal), a ≥ 50% decrease in the difference between involved and uninvolved free light chain levels is required in place of the M-protein criteria. If serum and urine M-protein are unmeasurable, and serum free light assay is also unmeasurable, a ≥ 50% reduction in plasma cells is required in place of M-protein, provided the baseline bone marrow plasma cell percentage was ≥ 30%. In addition to the above listed criteria, a ≥ 50% reduction in the size of soft tissue plasmacytomas is also required, if present at baseline. PR requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy PR requirements. - Go to question 318
 Stable disease (SD) — not meeting the criteria for CR, VGPR, PR or PD. SD requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before the institution of any new therapy, and no known evidence of progressive or new bone lesions if radiographic studies were performed; radiographic studies are not required to satisfy SD requirements. - Go to question 318
 Progressive disease (PD) — requires any one or more of the following: Increase of ≥ 25% from baseline in: serum M-component and/or (absolute increase ≥ 0.5 g/dL) (for progressive disease, serum M-component increases of ≥ 1 g/dL are sufficient to define relapse if the starting M-component is ≥ 5 g/dL). Urine M-component and/or (absolute increase ≥ 200 mg/24 hours) for recipients without measurable serum and urine M-protein levels: the difference between involved and uninvolved free light chain levels (absolute increase > 10 mg/dL). Bone marrow plasma cell percentage (absolute percentage ≥ 10%) (relapse from CR has a 5% cutoff vs. 10% for other categories of relapse) definite development of new bone lesions or soft tissue plasmacytomas, or definite increase in the size of any existing bone lesions or soft tissue plasmacytomas. Development of hypercalcemia (corrected serum calcium > 11.5 mg/dL or 2.65 mmol) that can be attributed solely to the plasma cell proliferative disorder PD requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before classification as disease progression, and/or the institution of any new therapy - Go to question 318
 Relapse from CR (Rel) (untreated) — requires one or more of the following: reappearance of serum or urine M-protein by immunofixation or electrophoresis development of ≥ 5% plasma cells in the bone marrow (relapse from CR has a 5% cutoff vs. 10% for other categories of relapse) appearance of any other sign of progression (e.g., new plasmacytoma, lytic bone lesion, hypercalcemia) Rel requires two consecutive assessments made at any time before classification as relapse, and/or the institution of any new therapy. – Go to question 318
 Unknown – Go to signature line
 Not applicable (Amyloidosis with no evidence of myeloma) – Go to signature line
Date assessed: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___ - Go to signature line
YYYY MM DD
Specify the solid tumor classification:
Breast cancer (250)
Lung, small cell (202)
 Lung, non-small cell (203)
 Lung, not otherwise specified (230)
 Germ cell tumor, extragonadal (225)
 Testicular (210)
 Ovarian (epithelial) (214)
 Bone sarcoma (excluding Ewing family tumors) (273)
 Ewing family tumors of bone (including PNET) (275)
 Ewing family tumors, extraosseous (including PNET) (276)
 Fibrosarcoma (244)
 Hemangiosarcoma (246)
 Leiomyosarcoma (242)
 Liposarcoma (243)
 Lymphangio sarcoma (247)
 Neurogenic sarcoma (248)
 Rhabdomyosarcoma (232)
 Synovial sarcoma (245)
 Soft tissue sarcoma (excluding Ewing family tumors) (274)
 Central nervous system tumor, including CNS PNET (220)
 Medulloblastoma (226)
 Neuroblastoma (222)
 Head / neck (201)
 Mediastinal neoplasm (204)
 Colorectal (228)
 Gastric (229)
 Pancreatic (206)
 Hepatobiliary (207)
 Prostate (209)
 External genitalia (211)
 Cervical (212)
 Uterine (213)
 Vaginal (215)
 Melanoma (219)
 Wilm tumor (221)
 Retinoblastoma (223)
 Thymoma (231)
 Renal cell (208)
 Other solid tumor (269) – Go to question 320
 Solid tumor, not otherwise specified (200)
Specify other solid tumor: ______________________________- Go to signature line
Specify the severe aplastic anemia classification:
 Acquired severe aplastic anemia, not otherwise specified (301)
 Acquired SAA secondary to hepatitis (302)
 Acquired SAA secondary to toxin / other drug (303)
 Acquired amegakaryocytosis (not congenital) (304)
 Acquired pure red cell aplasia (not congenital) (306)
 Dyskeratosis congenita (307)
 Other acquired cytopenic syndrome (309) – Go to question 322
Specify other acquired cytopenic syndrome: ________________________- Go to signature line
Specify the inherited abnormalities of erythrocyte differentiation or function classification:
 Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) (56)
 Shwachman-Diamond (305)
 Diamond-Blackfan anemia (pure red cell aplasia) (312)
 Other constitutional anemia (319) – Go to question 324
 Fanconi anemia (311) (If the recipient developed MDS or AML, indicate MDS or AML as the primary disease).
 Sickle thalassemia (355)
 Sickle cell disease (356)
 Beta thalassemia major (357)
 Other hemoglobinopathy (359) – Go to question 325
Specify other constitutional anemia: ____________________________________
Specify other hemoglobinopathy:_______________________________
- Go to signature line
Specify disorder of immune system classification:
 Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency / severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) (401)
 Absence of T and B cells SCID (402)
 Absence of T, normal B cell SCID (403)
 Omenn syndrome (404)
 Reticular dysgenesis (405)
 Bare lymphocyte syndrome (406)
 Other SCID (419) – Go to question 327
 SCID, not otherwise specified (410)
 Ataxia telangiectasia (451)
 HIV infection (452)
 DiGeorge anomaly (454)
 Common variable immunodeficiency (457)
 Leukocyte adhesion deficiencies, including GP180, CD-18, LFA and WBC adhesion deficiencies (459)
 Kostmann agranulocytosis (congenital neutropenia) (460)
 Neutrophil actin deficiency (461)
 Cartilage-hair hypoplasia (462)
 CD40 ligand deficiency (464)
 Other immunodeficiencies (479) – Go to question 328
 Immune deficiency, not otherwise specified (400)
 Chediak-Higashi syndrome (456)
 Griscelli syndrome type 2 (465)
 Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome type 2 (466)
 Chronic granulomatous disease (455)
 Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (453)
 X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome (458)
Specify other SCID: ____________________________- Go to signature line
Specify other immunodeficiency: ____________________________- Go to signature line
Specify inherited abnormalities of platelets classification:
 Congenital amegakaryocytosis / congenital thrombocytopenia (501)
 Glanzmann thrombasthenia (502)
 Other inherited platelet abnormality (509) – Go to question 330
Specify other inherited platelet abnormality: __________________________- Go to signature line
Specify inherited disorders of metabolism classification:
 Osteopetrosis (malignant infantile osteopetrosis) (521)
Leukodystrophies
 Metachromatic leukodystrophy (MLD) (542)
 Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) (543)
 Krabbe disease (globoid leukodystrophy) (544)
 Lesch-Nyhan (HGPRT deficiency) (522)
 Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis (Batten disease) (523)
Mucopolysaccharidoses
 Hurler syndrome (IH) (531)
 Scheie syndrome (IS) (532)
 Hunter syndrome (II) (533)
 Sanfilippo (III) (534)
 Morquio (IV) (535)
 Maroteaux-Lamy (VI) (536)
 β-glucuronidase deficiency (VII) (537)
 Mucopolysaccharidosis (V) (538)
 Mucopolysaccharidosis, not otherwise specified (530)
Mucolipidoses
 Gaucher disease (541)
 Niemann-Pick disease (545)
 I-cell disease (546)
 Wolman disease (547)
 Glucose storage disease (548)
 Mucolipidoses, not otherwise specified (540)
Polysaccharide hydrolase abnormalities
 Aspartyl glucosaminidase (561)
 Fucosidosis (562)
 Mannosidosis (563)
 Polysaccharide hydrolase abnormality, not otherwise specified (560)
 Other inherited metabolic disorder (529) – Go to question 332
 Inherited metabolic disorder, not otherwise specified (520)
Specify other inherited metabolic disorder: _______________________________- Go to signature line
Specify histiocytic disorder classification:
 Hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) (571)
 Langerhans cell histiocytosis (histiocytosis-X) (572)
 Hemophagocytosis (reactive or viral associated) (573)
 Malignant histiocytosis (574)
 Other histiocytic disorder (579) – Go to question 334
 Histiocytic disorder, not otherwise specified (570)
Specify other histiocytic disorder: ____________________________________- Go to signature line
Specify autoimmune disease classification:
Arthritis
 Rheumatoid arthritis (603)
 Psoriatic arthritis / psoriasis (604)
 Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): systemic (Stills disease) (640)
 Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): oligoarticular (641)
 Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): polyarticular (642)
 Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): other (643) Go to question 337
 Other arthritis (633) – Go to question 336
Multiple sclerosis
 Multiple sclerosis (602)
Connective tissue diseases
 Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) (607)
 Systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE) (605)
 Sjögren syndrome (608)
 Polymyositis / dermatomyositis (606)
 Antiphospholipid syndrome (614)
 Other connective tissue disease (634) – Go to question 338
Vasculitis
 Wegener granulomatosis (610)
 Classical polyarteritis nodosa (631)
 Microscopic polyarteritis nodosa (632)
 Churg-Strauss (635)
 Giant cell arteritis (636)
 Takayasu (637)
 Behcet syndrome (638)
 Overlap necrotizing arteritis (639)
 Other vasculitis (611) – Go to question 339
Other neurological autoimmune diseases
 Myasthenia gravis (601)
 Other autoimmune neurological disorder (644) – Go to question 340
Hematological autoimmune diseases
 Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) (645)
 Hemolytic anemia (646)
 Evan syndrome (647)
 Other autoimmune cytopenia (648) – Go to question 341
Bowel diseases
 Crohn’s disease (649)
 Ulcerative colitis (650)
 Other autoimmune bowel disorder (651) – Go to question 342
Specify other arthritis:_________________________________
Specify other juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA):_________________________________
Specify other connective tissue disease:_________________________________
Specify other vasculitis:_________________________________
Specify other autoimmune neurological disorder:_________________________________
Specify other autoimmune cytopenia:_________________________________
Specify other autoimmune bowel disorder:_________________________________
- Go to signature line
Specify other disease: _________________________________________
First Name: ____________________________________________________________________________
Last Name:
E-mail address:
Date: ___ ___ ___ ___ — ___ ___ — ___ ___
YYYY MM DD
	CIBMTR Form 2402 revision 2
	(page 
	
	
| File Type | application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document | 
| File Title | 2400r4 | 
| Author | Robinette Aley | 
| File Modified | 0000-00-00 | 
| File Created | 2021-01-21 |